The Reading Comprehension

The Reading Comprehension section of the TOEFL test consists of five reading passages, each followed by a number of reading comprehension and vocabulary questions. Topics of the reading passages are varied, but they are often informational subjects that might be studied in an American university: American history, literature, art, architecture, geology, geography, and astronomy, for example.

Time is definitely a factor in the Reading Comprehension section. Many students who take the TOEFL test note that they are unable to finish all the questions in this section. Therefore, you need to make the most efficient use of your time in this section to get the highest score. The following method is the best way of attacking a reading passage to get the most questions correct in a limited amount of time. In the new version of the TOEFL, the amount of about 50 items that include vocabulary, and reding comprehension.

1.    Reading Comprehension

This section usually consists of five or six aas script (reading) short, each of which is followed by some questions, and peranyaan these questions must be answered in accordance with the information expressed or implied in the text.

2.    Vocabulary

This section consists of loose sentences are some of the words or he underlined.

STRATEGIES FOR THE READING COMPREHENSION QUESTIONS

1)   Skim the reading passage to determine the main idea and the overall organization of ideas in the passage.
You do not need to understand every detail in a passage to answer the questions correctly. It is therefore a waste of time to read the passage with the intent of understanding every single detail before you try to answer the questions.

2)   Look ahead at the questions to determine what types of questions you must answer.

Each type of question is answered in a different way.

3)   Find the section of the passage that deals with each question.

The question type tells you exactly where to look in the passage to find correct answers.

§  For main idea questions, look at the first line of each paragraph.

§  For directly and indirectly answered detail questions, choose a key word in the question, and skim

   for that key word (or a related idea) in order in the passage.

§  For vocabulary questions, the question will tell you where the word is located in the passage.

§  For where questions, the answers are found anywhere in the passage.

4)   Read the part of the passage that contains the answer carefully.

The answer will probably be in the same sentence (or one sentence before or after) the key word or idea.

5)   Choose the best answer to each question from the four answer choices listed in your test book.

You can choose the best answer according to what is given in the appropriate section of the passage, eliminate definitely wrong answers, and mark your best guess on the answer sheet.

Exercise

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

PASSAGE ONE (Questions 1-2)

Blood pressure measurement has two components: systolic and diastolic. Systolic pressure is taken when the heart is contracting to pump blood; diastolic pressure is taken when the heart is resting between beats. In the usual blood pressure reading, the systolic measurement is given first and is the higher of the two. Normal blood pressure is a systolic measurement of 120-140, and when the systolic pressure is 160 or higher, thenhypertension exists. Systolic pressure between 140 and 160 indicates borderline hypertension.

1. Which of the following is NOT true about systolic blood pressure?

(A) It is taken during the contraction of the heart.
(B) It is usually given first in a blood pressure reading.
(C) A normal systolic measurement is 120 – 140.
(D) Hypertension exists when the systolic pressure is below 140.

2. Which of the following is NOT stated about diastolic pressure?

(A) It is one of the two components of blood pressure measurement.
(B) It is taken when the heart is resting.
(C) It is lower than systolic pressure.
(D) A diastolic measurement of 140 is normal

Some questions in the Reading Comprehension section of the TOEFL test will require answers that are not directly stated in the passage. To answer these questions correctly, you will have to draw conclusions from information that is given in the passage. Questions of this type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the answer to the question is not directly stated

Example
The passage:

The number of rings in a tree can be used to determine how old a tree really is. Each year a tree produces a ring that is composed of one light-colored wide band and one dark-colored narrow band.The wider band is produced during the spring and early summer, when tree stem cells grow rapidly and become larger. The narrower band is produced in fall and early winter, when cell growth is much slower and cells do not get

very large. No cells are produced during the harsh winter and summer months.

The questions:

1. It is implied in the passage that if a tree has 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands then it is
    (A) a century old     (B) two centuries old
    (C) fifty years old
    (D) two hundred years old

2. It can be inferred from the passage that cells do not grow
   (A) when the tree is ill
   (B) during extreme heat or cold    (C) when it rains too much
   (D) if there are more light-colored bands than dark-colored bands

Analysis:

§  The first question asks about the age of a tree with 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands. The passage does not tell the age of a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands, but it does indicate that one.. . wide band and one. . . narrow band are produced each year. From this you can draw the conclusion that a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands is 100 years, or a century, old. The best answer to this question is therefore answer (A). 

§  The second question asks when cells do not grow. The pas sage indicates that no cells are produced during the harsh winter and summer months. From this you can draw the conclusion that cells do not grow during the extreme heat of summer or the extreme cold of winter. The best answer to this question is therefore answer (B).

The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about implied detail questions.

Study each of the passages, and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.

PASSAGE ONE (Questions 1-3)

Until 1996 the Sears Tower was the tallest building in the world, with more than a hundred stories. It is located in Chicago, whose nickname is the Windy City. The combination of a very tall building in a city with such weather conditions leads to a lot of swaying in the breeze.

On a windy day, the top of the building can move back and forth as much as three feet every few seconds. The inside doors at the top of the building open and close, andwater in sinks sloshes back and forth.

1. The Sears Tower is probably
    (A) as tall as the Empire State Building
    (B) no longer the tallest building in the world
    (C) taller than any other building
    (D) still the highest building in the world

2. It can be inferred from the passage that Chicago
    (A) has moderate weather
    (B) is generally warm
    (C) has humid weather
    (D) usually has a lot of wind

3. It is implied in the passage that the upper-level doors in the Sears Tower open and close because
   (A) the building was poorly constructed
   (B) people go in and out so often
   (C) the building moves in the wind
   (D) there is water in the sinks

PASSAGE TWO (Questions 4 - 6)

The most common last name in the English-speaking world is Smith, which was taken from the job of working with metals. A silversmith, for example, is someone who works with the metal silver. Historical records indicate that the use of this last name is at least 700 years old. Today, there are more than 3.3 million Smiths living in the United States and perhaps another million Smiths living in other English-speaking countries worldwide.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that family names
   (A) were always taken from the area where a family lived
   (B) were short names
   (C) had little or no meaning
   (D) could be taken from jobs

5. Which of the following is implied about the Smith family name?
   (A) it is definitely not more than 700 years old.
   (B) it existed 600 years ago.
   (C) It did not exist 500 years ago.
   (D) it definitely was not in use 1,000 years ago.

6. In England there are probably
   (A) more Smiths than there are in the United States
   (B) more than a million Smiths
   (C) fewer than a million Smiths
   (D) no families with the name of Smith

On the TOEFL test you will sometimes be asked to determine the meaning of a difficult word or expression, a word or expression that you do not know. In this case, the passage often gives you a clear indication of what the word or expression means.

Example

A line in the passage:

……..She has a large geranium growing in a pot in the corner of her apartment……

The question:

A “geranium” is probably which of the following?

(A) A sofa

(B) A chair

(C) A fish

(D) A plant

Analysis:

In this type of question, you are not expected to know the meaning of the word geranium. Instead, you should understand from the context that if the geranium is growing in a pot, then it is probably a plant. Answer (D) is therefore the best answer.

The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about vocabulary questions on the TOEFL test.

Study each of the passages, and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.

PASSAGE ONE (Questions 1-4)

When babies are born, they always have blue eyes. This is because the melanin, the pigment that colors the eyes, is not on the surface of the iris. Instead, it is within the creases of the iris. Because there is little melanin on the surface of the iris, the eyes appear blue.

After a few months, the melanin moves to the surface of the iris. It is the amount of melanin on the surface that determines a person’s permanent eye color, so it is at this point that a baby’s eyes develop the color they will have for a lifetime.

1. The word “pigment” in line 2 is closest in meaning to 
   (A) skin
   (B) muscle
   (C) tissue
   (D) color

2. The word “surface” in line 2 is closest in meaning to 
    (A) top
    (B) inside
    (C) back
    (D) bottom

3. The word “permanent’ in line 6 could best be replaced by
    (A) changeable
    (B) lasting
    (C) dark
    (D) possible

4. The word “point” in line 7 could best be replaced by which of the following?
    (A) Dot
    (B) Era
    (C) Time
    (D) Place

Prepare before the Test

Read on a variety of topics to build your English vocabulary.A large number of the passages on the TOEFL deal with topics in the natural sciences, the social sciences, and history. A smaller number related to culture and the arts. Read as much as you can in these subject area, particularly from textbooks, magazines, and newspapers.

Practice trying to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words from the way they are used in sentences. Use other words in the sentence, your understanding in the passage, and your knowledge of the world as clues to the meaning of unfamiliar words.

Be familiar with the testing tools used on the computer test. Practice using the mouse and the scroll bar. Practice reading from a computer screen and scrolling through a passage.

Pace Yourself

Work as quickly as you can.Pay attention to the number of questions and the amount of time you have during the test. On the paper test, you have 55 minutes to read all of of the passages and answer 50 questions, This means you have only 10 to 11 minutes to spend on each passage and its questions.

You can leave questions unanswered on both the paper test and the computer test. Later, you can go back to answer, review, or change your answers to previous questions. This is easier to do on the paper test because you can see and mark the questions. On the computer test, you have to remember which questions you skip because you are not allowed to write anything.

Eliminate answer choices you know are incorrect. Then, if you are not sure of the correct answer, guess!

Answer all questions about one passage before you move on to the next passages. On the computer test, although you are allowed to return to previous passages, this process takes a lot of time. It is better to finish each passage before going on.

Begin by Skimming

On both the paper and computer tests, begin a passage by skimming it. Skimming is reading quickly for a general understanding of the meaning and organization. Frequently the first question about a passage asks about its topic or main idea.

Read the first one or two sentences in each paragraph to get an idea of its content. Notice key words and phrases that are repeated throughout the passage. Read the last sentences in the last paragraph.

On the computer test, you must use the scroll bar on skim the passages because most of them are too long to fit on a single screen.

Identify What the Question Wants

Identify exactly what each question wants to know. Does it ask about information that is mentioned in the passage? Or does it ask about something that is NOT in the passage? Does it ask you to identify something that author stated. Or does it ask you to make an inference based on something the author implied? Does it ask you about the meaning of a word or phrase?

When you know what you are looking for, you can scan the passage to find the information you need. Scanning means looking for key words and phrases. On the computer test, sometimes the computer will tell you which paragraph to look in and will make that paragraph with an arrow.

In question about vocabulary, look for context clues in the passage. Use your knowledge of sentence structure, punctuation, and other words and ideas in the passage.

This section is the last section in the TOEFL test. The most lengthy and time-consuming most. In this section, participants must test 50 items was working within 55 minutes. So that the average time required to work on a problem is one minute. It's certainly longer if we compare it with the average time to work on the structure of the questions less than 45 seconds.

In this section, there are 5 reading (passage), with a number of questions (between 7-13 questions) underneath. The questions asked of the information contained in the text, either explicit information (explicit) or implicit (implied). Thus, this section marupakan actually the easiest part because all the answers are found in the literature SURE. The important thing is where the answers we seek it. If we are people who read the hobby, there is a tendency to get a better score. In fact, this section can be used as 'mine value' to cover the shortfall in the Listening and Structure Section.

To do this part well, then we must have the ability to read a good technique. Two techniques that must be mastered reading is skimming and scanning.

• Skimming is reading a text quickly to get a basic idea, main idea, or content of literature in general. In this skill we are not looking for specific information, reading only the main idea that we are looking for. So no need to read the entire piece of writing.
• Scanning is fast FIND a text for specific information. So we have the first question and find answers in a way to be scanned. In scanning, information that is not relevant to what we were looking neglected. Thus, in a scanning, we should have to the words that we wish to find in the literature. In general, scanning skills is what we use in working on Reading Comprehension questions.

In the Reading Comprehension section, participants tend to read the text first and then try to answer the question. It's not recommended. START OF QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SCAN IN READING. So, read the text first became ineffective in the context of scanning strategies. If we read the text first and answer questions later, then we will go back again to the reading to answer this question INEFFECTIVE!

There are 4 types of questions in Reading Comprehension Section:

1)    MAIN IDEA question: the question asks yan central idea, main idea, theme, or title reading (reading TOEFL is not accompanied by the title!). The number is only ONE question and generally placed as the first question in the text.

2)    DETAIL question: the question asking for specific information in the text. The answer to this type of reading material contained within EXPRESS (EXPRESS). The number of questions in each of the most widely read.

3)    Implied question: is a question similar to the question detail, by way of answering that is also equal to answer detailed questions. However, the answer to the question is found in the literature implicitly (IMPLIED). This question is not as much as the amount of Detail question.

4)     Vocabulary question: is a synonym ask questions or seek equivalent word whose meaning is closest to the word in question. Answering this question must be guessed BASED context of the sentence. Avoid guessing just by relying on our knowledge without checking it in the sentence reading. Always read the sentence in which a word is asked as a whole, then guess based on the context of the sentence. There is no other way to answer this type of question except by guessing based on context.

Here is a detailed strategy to answer any type of questions on Reading Comprehension Section:

• Editorial sentence question Main Idea of which is: What is the topic of the passage? / What is the subject of the passage? / What is the main idea of the passage? / What is the author's main point in the passage? / With what topic is the primary author concerned? / Which of the following would be the best title of the passage?
• If you want to answer this question without a pass, read the first sentence in each paragraph.
• Think about the theme of readings that can be inferred from the first sentences in each paragraph.
• Elimination choice answer: too general, too specific, or not at all related to the topic of reading.
• The answer to the question must be fitted main idea to explain the contents of the reading, should not be (too general in scope / wide) or less (scope is too narrow).

The Reading section may have 3-5 passages each of around 700 words. Time allowed for attempting 12-14 questions on each passage will be 20 minutes .So total time allowed for the Reading section will be 60-100 minutes depending upon the number of reading passages. Students are allowed to take notes and use the same for making an answer, but they are not allowed to carry the same outside the Test venue and have to surrender them before leaving. Technical terms, if any, may be highlighted in the text which may be clicked on for finding the meaning thereof in the glossary.

Following are certain types of questions asked in this section:

Reading for facts	8-15 Questions	Reading for main ideas	2-5 Questions
Reading for organization.	1-3 Questions	Reading for usage.	3-5 Questions
Reading for inference.	3-5 Questions	Answering negative fact	2-5 Questions
Identifying references.	2-5 Questions	Vocabulary in context.	8-15 Questions
Reading for coherence	3-5 Questions	Paraphrasing/Summarizing	3-5 Questions
Categorization of information(filling in a table)	1-2 Questions

Strategies

Strategies for doing your best on the Reading Comprehension section are :

How to prepare for the Reading section
Keep following tips in mind:

1. Read Newspapers, magazines. Read whatever you can, whenever you can.
2. Practice skimming -reading some leaving some- so as to get the gist of the writing without reading all or major portion of the reading assignment.
3. Pay particular attention to new vocabulary words, including the use of prefixes, suffixes, and roots.
4. Practice determining the meaning of a vocabulary word from its context.

Sources :

• Irham Ali Saifuddin, 2005, Buku Pintar TOEFL, DIVA Press, Yogyakarta.

http://www.tcyonline.com/toefl/str_read.php

STRATEGY OF STRUCTURE TOEFL

Structure and Written Expression was tested in the second part of the TOEFL test. It is intended to determine your competence English language data. The question being tested is divided into two models of structure and written expression question question. The duration of a good time is provided only for 25 minutes. question structure is used to test your ability to understand the structure of the sentence in the English language correctly. In this model uses sentence completion format that complements the rest of the sentence is still empty. While written expression question you are asked to identify the right part in a sentence.

Structure is whatever the field of science in which you worked, you would know about the concept of structure. In the engineering disciplines, sociology, anthropology, art, mathematics, economics, geography, and all branches of science known concepts and definitions of the term structure of the Different. But if we look carefully, there is a common thread of all the definitions of the different concepts such.

A definite structure presupposes the existence of three main things, namely :

1)   Part / element / elements forming the structure.

2)   Linkages / relationships between elements / elements / sections.

3)   Law / order / specific pattern that binds all the elements / elements / parts.

Therefore, the structure implies three things mentioned above, then the same way the questions on the Structure and Written Expression is also presupposes three things. Therefore, the smallest unit being tested are sentences (not paragraphs as in section 3), then we should be able to identify:

1)   The elements forming sentences

2)   Relationships between elements sentence

3)   Patterns that bind all these elements.

SECTION I

General Strategies

1.    Understand the forms of the command (direction) on each piece (part) well before the H.

2.    Questions Take the first structure.

3.    Continue on issues of Written Expression Specific Strategy How to Respond Problem Structure.

4.    First of all consider the sentence in question in terms of Remember the purpose of the questions is to know or determine the structure kawaban paliing what is right for the complete lack of matter. Therefore, by observing carefully will know the shortcomings and what is needed to complete it. Here you need to identify the components of the sentence. That is, which is the subject (noun), predicate (verb), object (noun), adverbs, and so on.

5.    Consider each answer available, choose the most appropriate to complete the sentence in question you have to pay attention each answer in the answer choices (A), (B), (C), and (D). By looking carefully you will soon find out which one is the right choice to fill the gap in the sentence in question. Of course you need to equip themselves with adequate grammar abilities. So it is advisable to study grammar books.

6. Never eliminate an answer choice just look at the answer without seeing the phrase a matter generally, each answer choice is maing a point when he stood sendiri.Sebuah answer choice is right or wrong will be known after the inserted into sentences. How to Answer Questions Written Expression.

7. First of all note the word or group of words underlined and quickly find the right part which not. Most questions in this section can be identified by simply looking at the word or group of words Example: The final class presentation is the importantest Without reading the full sentence by just looking at the underlined, you can identify which ones are right: The answer is importantest because of the superlative form important but not the most important importantest.

8. When you are dealing with a matter that can not be identified by just looking at the word or group of words underlined, immediately read the full text.

Exercises :

Directions: Question 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentences. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval can’t be seen.

1.    The Cyclist _______ he crossed the main street.
(A) Looked with caution after.
(B) Had looked cautiously before.
(C) Was looked cautions when.
(D) looks cautious when.

2.    Here_______ notebook and report that I promised you last week.
(A) Is the.
(B) Are the.
(C) Was the.
(D) Has been a.

3.    Neither Jane nor her brothers _______ a consent from for tomorrow's field    Trip
(A) Need.
(B) Needs.
(C) Is needing.
(D) Has need.

4.    Cuba is _______  sugar-growing areas in the world
(A) One of the larger.
(B) One of largest.
(C) One of the largest.
(D) Largest.

5.    The skiers would rather _______ through the mountains than go by bus
(A) To travel on train.
(B) Traveled by train.
(C) Travel by train.
(D) Travelling by the train.

6.    That magnificent _______ temple was constructed by the Chinese
(A) eight-centuries-old.
(B) Eight-centuries’s-old.
(C) Old-eight centuries.
(D) eight-century-old.

7.    There were two small rooms in the beach house,  _______ served as as a kitchen.
(A) The smaller of which
(B) The Smallest of which.
(C) The Smaller of them.
(D) Smallest of that.

8.    Pioneer men and women endured terrible hardships, and _______                    
(A) So do their children.
(B) Neither did the children.
(C) Also the Childs.
(D) Had he studied more.

9.    Mr. Duncan _______ his brother, who has a better position.
(A) Twice as much as.
(B) Twice more than.
(C) Twice as many as.
(D) Twice as more as.

10. _______, he would have been able to pass the exam.
(A) If he studied more.
(B) If he were studying to a greater degree.
(C) Studying more
(D) He had studied more.

11. Mr. Duncan does not know _______ the lawn mower after they had finished using it.
(A) When did they put.
(B) When they did put.
(C) Where they put.
(D) Where to put.

12. The facilities of the older hospital  _______                                            
(A) is as good of better than the new hospital.
(B) Are as good or better than the new hospital.
(C) Are as good as or better than the new hospital.
(D) Are as good as or better than those of the new hospital.

13. Our flight from Amsterdam to London was delayed _______.
(A) Write a composition on their.
(B) To write composition about the.
(C) wrote some composition of his or her.
(D) Had written any composition for his.

14. The teacher suggested that her students _______ experiences with ESP.
(A) Write a composition on their.
(B) To write composition about the.
(C) wrote some composition of his or her.
(D) Had written any composition for his.

15. Of the two new teachers, one is experienced and _______
(A) The others are not.
(B) Another is inexperienced.
(C) The other is not.
(D) Other lacks experience.

SECTION II

Part-2 is the most difficult part of the entire TOEFL test, although the number of questions that tested relatively few. First of all we need to know about how to work on each part of it. Section II consists of two parts, namely Part A is called Sentence Completion (complete the sentence), and Part B is commonly called Error Identification (identify grammatical errors).

 Part A :

Sentence Completion In this section there are 15 questions, each consisting of 1 piece of sentences with words and / or phrases are omitted. We are asked to choose one of the options (a), (b), (c), or (d) that when inserted into a sentence on it grammatically correct. So in other words we have to choose which one is correct.

Part B :

Error Identification In this section, there are 25 questions. In each sentence there is a word or group of words underlined are marked with (a), (b), (c), and (d). We are asked to identify the parts which are NOT marked grammatically proper. In other words, we are asked to choose WHERE ARE WRONG.

General Strategy
In this section, there is a phrase that is part of the sentence is missing. Of 'structural paradigm' that I described above, then the most appropriate way to do this part is to determine which components are omitted in the sentence, whether the components of Subject, Verb, Complement, Object, Conjuction, Appositive, or a combination of some of their components- these components. If this can not be done, then get to know in advance which components are present, then later look where the removed components. By knowing what components are eliminated, then at least we will be looking into the options that indeed we need and eliminate the wrong choices.

Example :

A camel ______________ 30 gallons of water in ten minutes.
(A) it can drink
(B) a large drink of
(C) can drink
(D) with a drink of

Exercise :

The above problem is typical of Part A (sentence completion), in which we are asked to determine the correct answer from the four choices given. Step  : read in a very short sentence nil. Step 2 : Quickly determine what components removed Step 3 : elimination of the answer choices are not likely to be selected (one) Step 4 : answer the question

If seen, the above sentence contains components Subject ('A camel') but no Verb its components (in Indonesian we know this component as a predicate). So we have to find a Verb in the options provided. Of the four options, there are 2 options are NOT Verb, that option (b) and (d), so that automatically we will ignore these two options. Answer choices (a) contains a Verb, but still contains the Subject, that 'it'. Because the sentence already contains Subject, option (a) is therefore also wrong. The answer to the question above is (c), considering this is the only option that contains the verb. Remember, in the 2nd part TOEFL (Structure) answer to the question should be fit to answer the question, If the omitted verb, then seek Verb, should not be less (no load Verb) or more (contain other components that are not needed). 

About Subject and Verb
The main components of a sentence in English is Subject (S) and verb (V). However, the term Verb (verb) here commensurate with the predicate in Indonesian. Let us look at the following illustration:
Sentence : I am hungry. Subject: I
Predicate : Hungry

The sentence above consists of only two words, 'I' and 'hungry'. In the Indonesian sentence is grammatically acceptable. Judging from the type he says, components subject 'I' is the pronoun (Pronoun or pronouns), and consists of a predicate adjective (adjective) 'hungry'. A sentence which contains only one form of subject pronouns and adjectives form a predicate or noun (N) is possible in the Indonesian.

However, unlike the case in English. The phrase 'I am hungry.' in Indonesian is not the same as "I hungry ', although I = I, and hungry = hungry. sentence should English is" I am hungry. "Now, that sentence contains' am' between I (i) and hungry (hungry). In other words, there is an additional component in the English tongue predicate. During this time we know the 'am' as one of the 'to be'. however, if viewed in the dictionary, the entry 'be' categorized as a verb (verb). therefore, striking differences between the predicate Indonesi Language and English is that the predicates in English must contain a verb (verb), and therefore we will refer to the basic components tongue English sentences as Subject and Verb (S + V), is no longer the S + P .

Now let's see, how many types of verb that can fill the components 'predicate' in English: 1) To be: is, am, are, was, were, be, been, being.2) Finite verb: drive, walk, write, say, and other variants such as says, walks, writes, drives, sleeps, and others. Included in this is kelopok 2nd form of the verb (V2 / past), namely, drove, slept, wrote, said, walked, etc.. 3) modals: can, may, must, should, would. Marshall, will4) Auxiliary verb: do, does, did, as well as other variants such as have, had, has.

There is no regular expressions in English which do not contain any of the groups listed above or a combination thereof. Remember: Verb form-ing (sleeping, driving, walking, writing, etc.) are not included in the above group considering the use of this word has rules of its own.

Now try the following questions :

The President ______________ the election by a landslide.
(A) won
(B) he won
(C) yesterday
(D) fortunately

S - V Agreement, Appositive, and the Object of Preposition
Unlike in Indonesian, in English subject must be in conformity with the Verb. For example, in the sentence 'She is writing a letter' subject 'She' and the verb 'is writing' accords, because if I replace it with 'are writing', then the subject is not in conformity with the verb. Questions relating to the suitability pretty much found the TOEFL.
In general, in the context of some of the Simple Present Tense and the Past, S and V must be compatible. For example :
We are students.
We have been waiting for him for more that five hours.
She was eating dinner when I arrived. 

Consider another example :
The value of precious gems is determined by their hardness and brilliance.

Although the remote location of S and V as in the example sentence above, they still have to be compatible.

In general, a short way to memorize this concept are :

S+ S + V-s     

S-S + V + s

This means that if S contains the letter 's' (plural, eg Brothers) then V is not using the letter 's' (eg work, not works). Vice versa. Examples.

My brothers work at the post office.

My brother works at the post office.

Apposition (Appositive) is a word or group of words that typically do not contain S and V, the meaning of which is equal to the S, or explain S. It can be placed between the S and V are flanked by two commas, or can also be placed before the S and separated by a comma. Example: Influenza, a common disease, has no cure.

Its apposition: 'a common disease' or it could be : A common disease, influenza has no cure.

Meanwhile, an S shall not contain prepositions (preposition) like 'at, on, in, of, with' etc.. If on an S we find the next word, it is not included as part of S. For example, if the S is: 'The value of precious gems' then calculated as S to be adjusted to V (see SV Agreement) is the part before the preposition , namely 'The value' course, remember the words which afterwards preceded by the preposition 'of'.
So if S 'The value of precious gems' have V 'Determines' then S and V are NOT accords. Do not be fooled by the plural form after the preposition. Beware, participants often stuck. 

It should also be noted that there exist some S which requires V is singular or plural. It is however a few exceptions. For example:

The number of single V wants .........

The number of female doctors is ..... (Instead of 'are')

A number of V requires the plural .............

A number of students are ...... (Not 'is')

TENSES

The material on the matter tense is 'creepy' when our junior high or high school, considering there are a lot of patterns and formulas that must be memorized. But let's simplify: Tense it relates to time. Logically, the human experience of time there are only two, namely PAST and FUTURE NOW! What about the FUTURE? And Allaah 'natural bi murodih! No one knows what will happen tomorrow! It had its domain of the Almighty. What is the evidence: for example Tense Simple Future tense: 'I will go to Semarang next week' SURE pronounced in the present! So the shape of the future will be spoken within the framework of the present or the past.

Therefore it is only 2 forms of time alone, PAST and PRESENT, then on the TOEFL questions about tenses only two tenses dwell in this alone. Why is that? Of the four forms of the verb, V1, V2, V3, and V-ing, only V1 and V2 was related to time!! Example:

1) She is writing a letter (PRESENT)

2) She was writing a letter (PAST)

Explanation: in sentence 1): words in V that shows Present is 'is' (V1) is not 'writing'; in sentence 2): words in V that shows is the Past 'was' (V2) instead of 'writing'. Try to see if the form-ing 'writing' to change due to time? He replied NO!! To be honest, we often get caught saying that the existing V-ing it (let alone wear one of salaitu ah not to be) it is PRESENT. From now on let us understand bahw V-ing it has nothing to do whatsoever with the PRESENT!!!

Another example:

1) She has written her thesis.

2) She had written her thesis.

Explanation: in sentence 1) the word 'has' (V1) showed PRESENT, not 'written'; in sentence 2) the word 'had' (V2) shows the PAST, not 'written'. Once again, we sometimes get stuck understood as PAST V3, but V3 is NOT nothing to do with the PAST!!!

In the TOEFL, questions about tenses only revolve around the issue of whether the V shape is in accordance with the context of the sentence or not; and it was just about the only form of PAST and PRESENT. Example:

In the Milkyway Galaxy, the most recently observed supernova has Appeared in 1604.

                                                                                                                                         
Verb 'has Appeared' in the above sentence is not appropriate, given the marker's time is past, namely 1964.

FORMULA relating to USE VERBS

Each verb has four forms, namely V1, V2, V3, and V-ing. Each verb when used as a predicate, it means the verb has an S on the left or right side, there are certain formulas that need to be understood and, of course, be memorized:

S + V1 / s : They write letters every week.

   She writes a letter every week.

The use of V1 directly after the S, can not use to be or has, have, had!!

S + V2 : She wrote a letter last week.

The use of V2 also directly after the S!

S + to be + V-ing : She is writing a letter.

The use of V-ing should always be accompanied by one of the forms to be when used as a predicate. Remember: if NOT as a predicate, then V-ing should not use to be!!

Example : The boy standing in the corner is naughty.

The word 'standing' in the sentence above is NOT the one of a predicate,

S + has / have / had / to be + V3 : She has written a letter.

Use of V3 must always be accompanied by Has / have / had / to be when used as a predicate! Remember: if NOT as a predicate, then V3 must be 'alone'!!!

Example: The letter written last week arrived today.Kata 'written' in the sentence above is NOT a Verb, but only an Adjective. Verb (predicate) sentence above is 'arrived'. 

Gerunds as Subject, Object or Complement

Try to think of gerunds as verbs in noun form.
Like nouns, gerunds can be the subject, object or complement of a sentence:

• Smoking costs a lot of money.
• I do not like writing.
• My favorite occupation is reading.

But, like a verb, a gerund can also have an object itself. In this case, the whole expression [gerund + object] can be the subject, object or complement of the sentence.

• Smoking cigarettes costs a lot of money.
• I do not like writing letters.
• My favorite occupation is reading detective stories.

Like nouns, we can use gerunds with adjectives (including articles and other determiners):

• pointless questioning
• a settling of debts
• the making of Titanic
• his drinking of alcohol

But when we use a gerund with an article, it does not usually take a direct object:

• a settling of debts (not a settling debts)
• Making "Titanic" was expensive.
• The making of "Titanic" was expensive.

SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT

1.   Subject to the pronouns he, she, it and the pronouns they, we, I, you.

Pronoun	To be	Verb	Has/have	Do/does
He She It	Is Is Is	Verb 1 + s/es	Has	Does
They We I You	Are Are Am Are	Verb 1	Have	Do

A.        The student(s) go to campus every morning

                        S                V

A student go(es) to campus every morning

                        S         V

                       

B.        The students are in the class now

                        S             V

A student is in the class now

                        S      V

He wants to be a teacher, but you don’t want to.

They go to school by bus, but she goes to school on foot.

The car has good wheels, but it doesn’t have enough seats for four.

They play football and he plays badminton.

I am a student, and you are a teacher.

2.     Countable and Uncountable Noun Countable

No	Singular	Plural
1	chair	Chair-s
2	Pen	Pen-s
3	Book	Book-s
4	bag	Bag-s
5	Student	Student-s
6	Teacher	Teacher-s
7	Boy	Boys
8	Girl	Girls

The chair is ...........

The chairs are ..............

The teacher comes ...........

The teachers come .............

Uncountable

No	Singular	Plural
1	Water
2	Sugar
3	money

Water is .........

Sugar is ............

Water creates ........

Sugar produces ...........

3. Single subject with a preposition phrase (together with, accompanied by, along with, as well as); and prepositions such as (on, in, of, etc).

·        The leader of the gangsters is still alive.

·        The president, accompanied by five ministers, often visits market.

·        The flood in many big cities has many bad impacts.

However, be careful :

·        The books in the library are not so interesting.

·        Some rooms of the hotel have been occupied.

4. Gerund /-ing form of a verb that functions sbgai NOUN (subject and object).

·        Smoking cigarettes is not good for our health

·        Using nuclear weapon in wars has made Iraq more powerful.

·        I like swimming a lot.

5. The subject pronoun always considered singular :

Anybody, anyone, everyone, anything, everything, none, no one, nobody, nothing, someone, somebody, something, each, each of.

Nobody is perfect.

Someone has broken my heart.

Everything is all right when you are in my side.

No one cares about him.

Each student gets one book.

6. The subject pronoun always considered plural :

All, some, most.

(depend on the subject that is used, whether plural or singular)

·        Some of the students are clever

·        Some of the water in the river is contaminated.

·        All of the money is lost.

·        All of the bags are expensive.

·        Most of the students are clever.

·        Most of the water in the river is contaminated.

7. Subject to a collective noun (plural noun but use a singular verb) :

Family, government, team, group, organization, committee, congress, class, club, public, ministry, firm, staff, crowd, etc.)

·        The government has decided to raise the fund in education.

·        My family is the happiest family in the world.

·        The committee is still arguing about the winner of the contest.

8.  Subject yang menyatakan jumlah jarak, berat, uang, waktu, prosentase, volume dianggap tunggal.

24 hours is the amount of hours in a day.

12 months has 365 days.

a two-hours trip to Bandung is really tiring.

9. Subject to the noun is always plural :

Trousers, scissors, jeans, shorts, pants, shoes, glasses, parents, etc.

·        These jeans are expensive.

·        My parents are really kind.

But if imbued with a pair of words, a couple of, then the verb must be singular.

·        A pair of shoes is under the table.

·        My shoes are lost

·        A pair of glasses I bought yesterday was very expensive.

10. Subject to the specific noun plural, although not always considered imbued plural-s.

Police, cattle, people.

·        The police have arrested the thief.

·        Cattle were regarded as capital in early society.

·        People of Indonesia are participating in the general election.

11. Subject to specific nouns are always singular even though imbued considered plural-s.

News, means, measles, species, mathematics, politics, economics, etc.

·        This bad news has shocked her.

·        Economics is taught by Mrs. Jenny.

12. The use of  “either ….. or” dan “neither ….. nor”

·        Either Dony or Randi is handsome.

·        Neither Tamara nor my sister goes to school on time.

·        Either Dony or his parents are kind.

·        Neither the teacher nor the students go to school on time.

·    Neither the football players nor the coach was satisfied with the referee’s decision.

13. The use of “not only ….. but also”.

·        She not only loves animal but also cares about the environment.

·        We not only love animal but also care about the environment.

·        The girl is not only beautiful but also smart.

·        The successful athletes got not only medals but also money.

14. Subject to the word “a number of” and “the number of”

·        A number of students are attending the seminar.

·        The number of students in this class is 40.

Exercises

1.     One of the students in UMK ............ scholarship from America

a.     Get

b.    Gets

c.      Got

d.    Gotten

2.     each students .......... one book everyday

a.     bring

b.    brings

c.      brought

d.    bringing

3.     Cheating .......... dishonest students

a.     Creates

b.    Create

c.      Created

d.    Creating

4.     There ............ some sugar in the bottle.

a.     Are

b.    Is

c.      Am

d.    Were

5.     Most people in the world .......... soccer.

a.     Like

b.    Likes

c.      Is liking

d.    Doesn’t like

6.     All of water .......... beneficial for life.

a.     Is

b.    Are

c.      Am

d.    Has 

7.     The number of illiterate people in our country .......... drastically.

a.     to decrease

b.    decrease

c.      has decreased

d.    it decreased 

8.     Five hundred miles .......... a long distance to drive in one day.

a.     Is

b.    Are

c.      Are being

d.    They are

9.     Neither I nor my students .......... at school yesterday.

a.     Is

b.    Are

c.      Was

d.    Were 

10. An increase in the number of students .......... expected next year.

a.     Is

b.    Are

c.      Be

d.    Was

Sources :
http://zoneinggris.com/strategi-structure-toefl.html/
http://belajarpercakapaninggris.com/strategi-structure-toefl.html/
http://www.englishclub.com/grammar/verbs-gerunds_1.htm